The Neutrality Act was violated by Roosevelt routinely, giving 50 ships to Britain in September 1940 was an overt act of war against Germany, the country Roosevelt really wanted to go to war with.

How was it act of war when you have clearly stated England did not need any help defeating Germany?

Now, I know that you know. You into the Scotch tonight? :D

I wish...I have a system providing ISR coverage for the Asian Games in Doha and had just arrived home.:(

The Neutrality Act(s) were largely symbolic and had enough loopholes that even Roosevelt could exploit them.

The Destroyers for Bases Agreement between the United States and the United Kingdom, September 2, 1940, transferred fifty obsolete destroyers from the United States Navy in exchange for land rights on British possessions.

Which is the transferance of war machines from a internationally recognized neutral country to a belligerant, and act of war under the law.

Also, I believe that the agreement of which you speak is a treaty, and was never submitted for ratification either, breaking not just a law, but a Constitutional requirement as well.

Reaffirming what we know about Roosevelt yet again, that he was a lawless thug.

Which is what we have today in that office.

It is evident that the Neutrality Acts favored Germany since Germany (who had delared war on England and invaded Poland) had no need to buy armaments, while Britain and France had great needs.

Roosevely urged (bullied) Congress to repeal the arms embargo.His appeal was finally answered by Congress with the provision that England and France supply the ships and cash for armaments.

Title to all exports were to be transferred before the goods left the U.S.

In May 1940, Churchill asked for 40 or 50 overage destroyers. By September 1940 a destroyers-for-bases agreement was made under the provision Congress approved.

Not sure which law was broken.