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Quote:
Originally Posted by ckelly78z View Post
I believe that any time that shares are traded, it goes on the declared value at the time (market value). The cost basis of the shares should be in lieu of the hourly rate of the time spent.
I don't understand that answer.

Simple math.

Let's say the shares were at $1.00 and 100 shares were granted = $100.

Let's say the value of the work was $200.

If the shares were exercised at $3.00 per share, $300.

What is the cost basis, $100 or $200. Because it's not $0.00, at least it better not be.
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