[matthewb0051]

Jeez, is this a Bar exam question??? Making my head hurt but here goes.

IIRC, if a beneficiary pre-deceases the testator, then the dead beneficiary takes zero, nada, zip, zilch. But I could be wrong, its been over 25 years...

Secondly, I don't believe the bequest passes to Wife bc her dead hubby can no longer take.

A. I believe you look to the will for line of succession
B. If will is silent then it could be as though the guy died intestate (w/o a will) but you also need to know if there are other beneficiaries. If there are more folks that can take, I believe uncle's share goes to them equally.

Edit: just saw the sibling/ nieces/nephews bit. Assuming they are not in the will, ie no other specific beneficiaries, then its like he had no will at all: I believe sibling takes all. Nieces/nephews take if sibling had predeceased testator.

I told you this is a great bar exam question.