Quote:
Originally posted by Moneyguy1
Call me unsophisticated...
How come, if the will of the people, in a general election, is to do "X", and that is not in conflict with the existing law, does the judicial community have the right to overturn what the people have expressed they want?
Looks like voting will become irrelevant if this kind of behaviour is permitted to continue.
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This is the point I brought up yesterday in one of Cramer's threads...."The means/ workings of change are corrupt. That the judicial branch has breached the Law/Constitution. It is no longer an "interpreter" of plain legislative fact, whether labeled as a "moral" or not."
This has been going on too long. It's time to call these rogues to the carpet with executive order to arrrest followed by impeachment.