Agree should be a distinction btwn violent and non-violent crimes.
But even for non-violent crimes, I can see prohibition against gun ownership for 5 years or so, *if* there's evidence that commission of a non-violent crime means one is more likely to commit a subsequent violent crime.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Joeaksa
how and why can anyone equate to the same treatment for someone who for instance was convicted of fraud, or some other crime that is a felony but has nothing to do with violence?
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