Quote:
Originally Posted by DAEpperson
Okay Brainiacs - dumb it down just a bit.
Can a circle's area be a finite, rational number? 
If the answer is yes, how is this possible if pi is irrational??? |
by definition all rational #s are finite ie they can be expressed as a fraction.
there is no rational # that is not also finite
here's something else to think about, between any 2 rationals #s is an infinite # of irrational #s, the reverse is not true,