Quote:
Originally Posted by DanielDudley
Of course you can have a finite number as the area. The answer itself would only be approximate, not the reality.
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nope an exact finite, rational area is possible, as is an exact integer answer, the only inexactness is from trying to write pi as a rational #(ie either as a fraction or repeating decimal(1 and all other integers are considered to be repeating because it can be expressed exactly as 1.0000... w/ as many zeros as pleases you))
in fact the definition of a rational # is that which can be written as a fraction or repeating decimal, 1/3 1/2, 5/4, 1, 1, 1000045, 4 1/9 etc all are rational and can be written as a fraction, only irrational and imaginary #s can not be written that way
that's the beauty of math, it's the only place where exact solutions exist.