|
Why wouldn't a man who ran a stop sign, hit someone and fled be cited?
I was looking at the police report from my accident last month and it got me thinking. The report said the cause of the accident was because the guy failed to stop at the stop sign.
The old guy admitted he was speeding and ran a stop sign. He fled the scene and someone had to chase him to get him to come back. My impression was that he had been drinking. I formed this in observing his tremor, his gait, what he said and how he said it. The person who chased him down stated that when he saw someone was coming after him, the guy tried to escape by running a red light.
He was not cited for speeding or running the stop sign. They did not perform a sobriety test on him. They did not cite him for running away.
The old man told them he was looking for a safe place to turn around, which is pretty obviously BS, as he could have pulled over less than 100 yd from the intersection where the street becomes much wider, but is still two lanes.
The police report said I was going straight, instead of turning left. It says I was stopped in the intersection, when I was proceeding through the intersection. It has a statement from me that is not accurate. It has a statement from the witness, but does not include the fact that said witness had to chase the old guy or that the old guy ran a light trying to get away.
I can almost understand why they did not pinch him for felony hit and run, because the jails are full and I don't think they put people in jail for that anymore. I can't figure out why they did not cite him for running the stop sign. The county and state are both broke, and a stop sign ticket has got to be a grand, with fees and penalties. The old guy copped to running the stop sign, so why not cite him for it?
What do you guys think?
__________________
She was the kindest person I ever met
|