[Chocaholic]

A little over a year ago, I sold a motorcycle to very nice older gentleman. He made several installments and finally paid me in full about 14 months ago. I provided a bill of sale and signed the clear title over to him, and off he went.

Fast forward to yesterday.

He calls me out of the blue and says that he loves the bike, yada, yada, yada. But it seems he lost the title and the bill of sale and as such, has not, and cannot transfer the title over to himself.

He has asked me to apply for a lost title, then when the title arrives in my name, sign it over to him and send it to him with a new bill of sale.

My concern is that could be "proof" that I've been the owner of the bike all along. Let's say there was an accident or other foul-play involving the bike. Would this somehow make me liable? Wouldn't it be better for me to simply provide him with a new bill of sale referencing the complete and legal transfer of ownership to him in December of 2013? With that, perhaps he could apply for his own title replacement. Note, that he's also in a different state. I'm in GA, he's in NC.

Perhaps I'm concerned for nothing. He was a pleasure to deal with, communicated great and came through with the purchase as we agreed. Seems to be a stand-up guy. Thoughts?