okay, STOP! Enough already!

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yea i read it.....and understand it....but it's the name calling and bantering that gets threads shut down......this thread is 8 years old (?).....so why kill it now?
and besides.....everyone knows that camaros are better than mustangs and porsches LOL

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Future gynecologist, or porn producer?

Pic:

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All Ford did was pay Cosworth to develop an engine and put "Ford" on the valve covers. Ford had no more to do with it than just that. It may have fooled the Ford faithful, who chose to remain faithfully ignorant, but everyone else knew it as a "Cosworth". So, if we are talking a "Ford" produced by Ford, the answer is "0".

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How about that most American form of racing, drag racing - how many "Ford" bodied Funny Cars actually won or still win with "Ford" engines? How many Top Fuel wins does Ford have?

How about LeMans, Sebring, Daytona? GT championships?

Isn't that true for everyone in F1 except for Ferrari and Mercedes?
To your point, if it was Ford's money so it is a Ford engine.


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Their 427 did okay at Le Mans in 1966, '67, '68, and '69.

and that was about it for Le Mans, where as Porsche won that race 16 times....







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No, not even close. Lot's of manufactureres have won F1 races with chassis and engines they made themselves. Porsche even won one, in 1962 with this car:

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So, back to the original question, it's Porsche...1, Ford....0.

JR

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Just in time for Christmas!

Where does the anntenna go?

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I find that last post to be discriminatory.
Why can't my friends accept my fridge the way it is???

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